There’s been documentation of it for decades, even strictly in professional contexts. Why is it so common for doctors to not believe in dissociation, nonetheless dissociative disorders?
There’s been documentation of it for decades, even strictly in professional contexts. Why is it so common for doctors to not believe in dissociation, nonetheless dissociative disorders?
Yeah, that’s pretty textbook.
Outside of the usual semantic arguments about what constitutes a primary diagnosis, I can’t see a good reason why that would get so much pushback (sexism aside).