There’s been documentation of it for decades, even strictly in professional contexts. Why is it so common for doctors to not believe in dissociation, nonetheless dissociative disorders?
There’s been documentation of it for decades, even strictly in professional contexts. Why is it so common for doctors to not believe in dissociation, nonetheless dissociative disorders?
It was brought up briefly in a discussion on diagnosis criteria, but there wasn’t much beyond that and there wasn’t really much follow up, since no one wants to be the one to start an argument with the person marking their papers.